Physics Exam Questions for SS2 Second Term with Answers

You’re welcome to our school exams series where we provide you with termly examination questions in different subjects. In today’s post, we will focus on Physics exam questions. We will cover Physics exam questions for SS2 Second term with answers. This means that we’ll be providing you with answers to the questions at the end. Also, you will get a few success tips on how to pass Physics examinations with flying colors. Remember to use the comments sections if you have questions, and don’t forget to join our Free Online Tutorial Classes on YouTube. (Subscribe to the Channel)

Introduction to Physics as a School Subject

Before we venture into Past Physics Exam Questions for SS2 Second term, here’s a brief introduction to the subject:

Physics is one of the fundamental sciences that helps students understand the world around them. It deals with the study of matter, energy, and the interactions between them. In simple terms, Physics explains how and why things move, how forces act, and how natural phenomena occur — from falling objects to electricity, sound, light, and heat.

As a school subject, Physics trains students to think logically, observe carefully, and solve problems using scientific principles. It builds a solid foundation for careers in engineering, medicine, technology, and other science-related fields. Through both theory and practical experiments, students learn to apply scientific methods to real-life situations, making Physics not just a subject to study, but a way to understand and improve the world.

Physics Exam Questions for SS2 Second Term

Physics Exam Questions for SS2 Second Term are divided into two sections:

• Section A
• Section B

The first section, namely, Section A is the objective test, and students are expected to attempt all questions in the section. Section B is the theory part, and students are expected to follow specific instruction and answer the required number of questions.

Note that what you have below are SS2 Physics Second Term Exam Past Questions made available to assist students in their revision for 1st term examinations and also teachers in structuring standard examinations.

SECTION A: Objective Test

Instruction: Answer all questions in this section by choosing from the options lettered A—D. Each question carries equal marks.

1. The turning effect of a force about a pivot is called
A. pressure         B. torque
C. impulse          D. tension

2. A spanner is used to loosen a tight nut. A longer spanner is preferred because it
A. reduces friction
B. increases pressure
C. increases the moment of the force
D. reduces effort

3. If the line of action of a force passes through the pivot, the moment of the force is
A. maximum       B. minimum
C. zero                D. infinite

4. A uniform metre rule balances at the 50 cm mark. A 4 N weight is hung at the 20 cm mark. Where should a 2 N weight be placed to balance the rule?
A. 80 cm         B. 90 cm
C. 70 cm         D. 60 cm

5. The perpendicular distance between the pivot and the line of action of a force is known as
A. effort arm              B. load arm
C. moment arm         D. axis

6. Which of the following tools works mainly based on the principle of moments?
A. thermometer
B. beam balance
C. hydrometer
D. barometer

7. In order to increase the turning effect of a force, one should
A. decrease the force
B. decrease the distance from pivot
C. increase the perpendicular distance from pivot
D. reduce mass

8. When opening a door, it is easier to push at the
A. hinge
B. middle of the door
C. edge far from the hinge
D. top of the door

9. The upward force exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in it is called
A. drag               B. buoyancy
C. friction           D. surface tension

10. According to Archimedes’ principle, the buoyant force on a body immersed in a fluid is equal to the
A. weight of the body
B. weight of fluid displaced by the body
C. volume of the fluid displaced
D. density of the body

11. A body floats in a liquid when
A. weight of body > buoyant force
B. weight of body < buoyant force
C. weight of body = buoyant force
D. weight of displaced fluid = 0

12. If the weight of a body is greater than the buoyant force, the body will
A. float         B. remain suspended
C. sink          D. oscillate

13. For a floating body in equilibrium, the centre of gravity (G) and the centre of buoyancy (B) must lie
A. on the same horizontal line
B. on the same vertical line
C. at opposite ends of the object
D. anywhere inside the object

14. When a floating body is slightly tilted and returns to its original position, it is said to be in
A. unstable equilibrium
B. neutral equilibrium
C. stationary equilibrium
D. stable equilibrium

15. Apparent loss in weight of a body when immersed in fluid is due to
A. reduced gravity
B. surface tension
C. buoyant force
D. viscosity

16. A solid of mass 4 kg displaces 0.004 m³ of water when fully immersed. The buoyant force is (take ρwater = 1000 kg/m³)
A. 20 N             B. 40 N
C. 80 N             D. 100 N

17. A wooden block floats in water. If the block is pushed downward slightly and released, it returns to equilibrium. This is because of
A. unstable equilibrium
B. neutral equilibrium
C. stable equilibrium
D. no equilibrium

18. The condition for floatation of a body on a liquid is
A. density of body > density of liquid
B. density of body = density of liquid
C. density of body < density of liquid
D. density of body = 0

19. When the buoyant force acting on a body equals its weight, the body will
A. rise to the top
B. remain at any depth
C. sink to the bottom
D. float in equilibrium

20. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of gravity of
A. the body
B. the displaced fluid
C. the whole fluid
D. the water surface

21. A body will sink in a fluid if its density is
A. less than fluid density
B. equal to fluid density
C. greater than fluid density
D. zero

22. If a body is in neutral equilibrium in a fluid, then
A. buoyant force > weight
B. buoyant force < weight
C. buoyant force = weight and body stays at any new position
D. buoyant force = weight but body moves up only

23. If the velocity of an object doubles, the momentum will
A. halve                  B. double
C. quadruple          D. remain the same

24. A 5 kg trolley moving with a velocity of 2 m/s collides with another 5 kg trolley at rest and sticks together. Their combined velocity after collision is
A. 1 m/s              B. 2 m/s
C. 3 m/s              D. 4 m/s

25. If no external forces act on a system of particles, total momentum before and after interaction
A. changes
B. remains constant
C. doubles
D. becomes zero

26. Momentum is greatest for an object when it has
A. large mass and small velocity
B. large mass and large velocity
C. small mass and small velocity
D. small mass and large velocity

27. If two objects with equal momentum travel in opposite directions, the total momentum is
A. sum of both magnitudes
B. zero
C. equal to bigger mass only
D. equal to smaller mass only

28. A 1 kg object moves at 10 m/s. What force is needed to bring it to rest in 2 s?
A. 0 N            B. 5 N
C. 10 N           D. 20 N

29. A man weighs 600 N on Earth. If he stands on a weighing scale in a lift moving upward with uniform velocity, the scale reads
A. 0 N
B. 600 N
C. more than 600 N
D. less than 600 N

30. The apparent weight of a body in a lift is maximum when the lift
A. moves upward with acceleration
B. moves downward with acceleration
C. moves upward with uniform velocity
D. is at rest

31. A body of mass 50 kg is in a lift accelerating upwards at 2 m/s². Its apparent weight is (take g = 10 m/s²)
A. 500 N            B. 600 N
C. 700 N            D. 800 N

32. If a lift moves downward with acceleration equal to g, the apparent weight of a body in it will be
A. zero
B. equal to normal weight
C. greater than normal weight
D. negative

33. The apparent weight of a body is less than its true weight when the lift is
A. accelerating upwards
B. accelerating downwards
C. moving at constant speed
D. at rest

34. A 60 kg body in a lift experiences a reading of 720 N on the scale. The lift’s acceleration (upward) is
A. 1 m/s²             B. 2 m/s²
C. 3 m/s²             D. 4 m/s²

35. The true weight of a body is
A. mass × velocity
B. mass × acceleration of lift
C. mass × g
D. mass ÷ g

36. A 100 N object is in a lift accelerating downward at 2 m/s². Its apparent weight is
A. 100 N            B. 80 N
C. 120 N            D. 50 N

37. If a lift moves upward with acceleration a, the apparent weight W’ of a body of mass m is given by
A. W’ = mg − ma
B. W’ = mg + ma
C. W’ = mg
D. W’ = m(g − a)/2

38. Apparent weight equals true weight when the lift is
A. at rest
B. moving at uniform velocity
C. accelerating
D. both A and B

39. The equation for apparent weight W’ in a lift moving downward with acceleration a is
A. W’ = mg + ma
B. W’ = mg − ma
C. W’ = m(a − g)
D. W’ = mg × a

40. Mechanical energy of a body is the sum of its
A. heat and work
B. potential and kinetic energies
C. pressure and volume
D. mass and velocity

41. A body of mass 2 kg is thrown vertically upwards with speed 10 m/s. Its kinetic energy at the top of its motion is
A. 0 J            B. 25 J
C. 50 J          D. 100 J

42. At the highest point of its motion, the mechanical energy of a vertically thrown object is entirely
A. kinetic              B. potential
C. thermal            D. electrical

43. The law of conservation of mechanical energy states that in the absence of friction, total mechanical energy
A. increases
B. remains the same
C. decreases
D. becomes zero

44. When a body falls freely under gravity, its potential energy
A. increases
B. remains the same
C. decreases
D. becomes zero

45. At the midpoint of a freely falling body from rest, its kinetic energy is
A. equal to its potential energy
B. greater than its potential energy
C. less than its potential energy
D. zero

46. Workdone against gravity gives rise to
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. thermal energy
D. sound energy

47. A pendulum at its highest point has
A. maximum kinetic energy
B. zero kinetic energy
C. zero potential energy
D. decreasing mechanical energy

48. A car of mass 1000 kg moving at 20 m/s has kinetic energy
A. 200 kJ         B. 400 kJ
C. 600 kJ         D. 800 kJ

49. When mechanical energy is transformed completely into heat due to friction, the total mechanical energy
A. increases
B. remains the same
C. decreases
D. becomes zero

50. Which of the following is NOT a simple machine?
A. Lever
B. Pulley
C. Inclined plane
D. Electric motor

51. A lever consists of
A. fulcrum, load, effort
B. spring, mass, pulley
C. wheel, axle, string
D. inclined plane, wedge, screw

52. A first-class lever has
A. effort between load and fulcrum
B. load between effort and fulcrum
C. fulcrum between effort and load
D. no fulcrum

53. A second-class lever has
A. fulcrum between load and effort
B. load between effort and fulcrum
C. effort between load and fulcrum
D. load only

54. A third-class lever has
A. effort between load and fulcrum
B. fulcrum between effort and load
C. load between effort and fulcrum
D. effort at fulcrum

55. A pulley can change
A. direction of force only
B. magnitude of force only
C. both direction and magnitude
D. energy

56. The mechanical advantage of a machine is
A. effort × distance
B. load ÷ effort
C. speed × time
D. effort ÷ load

57. A crowbar is an example of which lever?
A. Second-class
B. Second-class
C. Third-class
D. None

58. A movable pulley
A. changes direction of force only
B. reduces effort needed to lift a load
C. does not change force
D. increases speed

59. Which simple machine is used in a screw?
A. Lever         B. Inclined plane
C. Pulley        D. Wheel and axle

60. The mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is
A. 0              B. 1
C. 2              D. Infinite

61. Which lever is used when opening a bottle with a bottle opener?
A. Second-class         B. Second-class
C. Third-class        D. None

62. Which of the following increases mechanical advantage?
A. Using longer effort arm
B. Using shorter effort arm
C. Using heavier load
D. Using smaller pulley

63. A body is said to be in equilibrium when
A. net force acting on it is zero
B. it moves with acceleration
C. it rotates
D. friction is zero

64. If three forces acting on a body are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, the body is in
A. linear motion
B. rotational motion
C. equilibrium
D. acceleration

65. A body at rest remains at rest because
A. forces are unbalanced
B. forces are in equilibrium
C. it has momentum
D. weight is zero

66. The algebraic sum of forces acting on a body in equilibrium is
A. maximum           B. zero
C. minimum            D. constant

67. Two forces of 10 N and 15 N act at a point in opposite directions. For equilibrium, a third force must be
A. 5 N in the same direction as 10 N
B. 25 N in the direction of 10 N
C. 15 N in the direction of 10 N
D. 5 N in the direction of 15 N

68. A body is kept in equilibrium by forces 3 N, 4 N, and 5 N acting at a point. The type of triangle formed by the forces is
A. equilateral      B. right-angled
C. isosceles         D. scalene

69. A uniform rod is in equilibrium on two supports. The sum of reactions at the supports equals
A. weight of rod
B. twice the weight
C. half the weight
D. zero

70. The condition for a rigid body to be in equilibrium is
A. resultant force = 0 only
B. resultant moment = 0 only
C. resultant force = 0 and resultant moment = 0
D. weight = 0

71. Three coplanar forces acting at a point keep a body in equilibrium. The forces are
A. parallel
B. concurrent
C. perpendicular
D. equal

72. If the net force on a body is zero, the body may be
A. at rest
B. moving with constant velocity
C. both A and B
D. accelerating

73. A projectile is a body that
A. moves in a straight line only
B. is thrown vertically upward only
C. moves under the influence of gravity after projection
D. moves only horizontally

74. The path followed by a projectile is called
A. circular path
B. elliptical path
C. parabolic path
D. straight path

75. At the highest point of its motion, the vertical component of velocity of a projectile is
A. maximum        B. zero
C. constant          D. negative

76. The horizontal component of velocity of a projectile (neglecting air resistance) is
A. increasing          B. decreasing
C. constant             D. zero

77. The range of a projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is
A. 30°           B. 45°
C. 60°           D. 90°

78. If the initial velocity of projection is doubled, the range becomes
A. doubled              B. tripled
C. four times           D. unchanged

79. At the point of projection and landing (same level), the speeds are
A. different           B. equal
C. zero                  D. unrelated

80. A ball projected horizontally from a table hits the ground after 3 s. The horizontal distance travelled depends on
A. acceleration due to gravity only
B. vertical velocity only
C. horizontal velocity only
D. mass of the ball

SECTION B: Essay / Theory

INSTRUCTION – Answer ALL questions in this section. Write your answers clearly and show working where necessary.

1. (a) Define a machine in terms of force, effort, load, resistance, etc.
(b) Using a table of at least three columns, group the following machines under first class lever, second class lever and third class lever: Scissors, Beam balance, Bottle cork opener, Broom used for sweeping, Crowbar, Door, Fishing rod, Human forearm lifting a weight, Luggage trolley, Nutcracker, Pliers, Seesaw, Shovel when lifting sand, Sugar Tongs, Tweezers, Wheelbarrow.
(c) A machine with a velocity ratio of 4 needs 900J of work to raise a load of 50kg through a vertical height of 1.5m. What is the mechanical advantage of the machine?

2. (a) State Newton’s second law of motion.
(b) A body of mass 950g is allowed to drop freely from a height of 80m. If the body penetrates sand to a depth of 20cm, what is the average resistive force exerted on the body by the sand.

3. A body has a mass of 10kg in air and 4kg when immersed totally in water. Calculate
(a) the volume of the body.
(b) the density of the body. [density of water = 1000kg/m³]

4. A uniform meter rule of mass 98g is pivoted at the 0.4m mark. If the rule is in equilibrium with an unknown mass m placed at the 0.1m mark, and a 62g mass at the 0.7m mark, determine m.

Remember to use the comments sections if you have questions, and don’t forget to join our Free Online Tutorial Classes on YouTube. (Subscribe to the Channel)

Answers to Physics Exam Questions for SS2 Second Term

Answers to Section A (Objective Test)

The following table gives the correct answers to the objective section of Physics exam questions for SS2 Second term. If you are using a mobile device, hold the table and scroll to the right or left for a complete view.

So here you have the answers to the objective section of Physics Exam Questions for SS2 Second term. Use the comments section to let me know if you have any questions you would want me to clarify or discuss further.

Answers to Section B (Theory)

1. (a) Definition of a Machine

A machine is a device that makes work easier by transmitting or modifying force. It involves:

• Effort: The force applied to the machine.
• Load (Resistance): The force the machine works against.
• Mechanical Advantage: The ratio of load to effort.
• Velocity Ratio: The ratio of distance moved by effort to distance moved by load.

A machine helps to multiply force, change the direction of force, or increase speed.

1. (b) Classification of Levers

1. (c) Mechanical Advantage

Work input = 900 J
Load = 50 kg → Weight = 50 × 10 = 500 N
Height = 1.5 m

Work output = Load × distance = 500 × 1.5 = 750 J

Efficiency = Work output / Work input = 750 / 900 = 0.833

Mechanical Advantage (MA) = Efficiency × Velocity Ratio
MA = 0.833 × 4 = 3.33

2. (a) Newton’s Second Law of Motion

Newton’s second law states that the rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the applied force and occurs in the direction of the force. Mathematically, F = ma.

2. (b) Resistive Force

Mass = 950 g = 0.95 kg
Height = 80 m
Penetration = 0.2 m
g = 10 m/s²

Velocity before hitting sand:
v² = u² + 2gh = 0 + 2 × 10 × 80 = 1600
v = 40 m/s

Kinetic Energy before impact:
KE = ½mv² = ½ × 0.95 × 1600 = 760 J

Average resistive force:
Work done = Force × distance
760 = F × 0.2
F = 760 / 0.2 = 3800 N

3. Density and Volume

Mass in air = 10 kg
Mass in water = 4 kg
Loss in weight = 6 kg → Upthrust = 6 × 10 = 60 N

(a) Volume:
Upthrust = ρgV
60 = 1000 × 10 × V
V = 60 / 10000 = 0.006 m³

(b) Density of body:
Density = mass / volume = 10 / 0.006 = 1667 kg/m³

4. Principle of Moments

Mass of rule = 98 g (acts at 0.5 m mark)
Pivot = 0.4 m

Distances from pivot:
m at 0.1 m → distance = 0.3 m
62 g at 0.7 m → distance = 0.3 m
Weight of rule at 0.5 m → distance = 0.1 m

Taking moments about pivot:
Clockwise = Anticlockwise

(62 × 0.3) = (m × 0.3) + (98 × 0.1)
18.6 = 0.3m + 9.8
0.3m = 8.8
m = 8.8 / 0.3 = 29.3 g

How to Pass Physics Exam Questions for SS2 Second Term

Passing your Physics exam questions for SS2 Second term requires a combination of preparation, understanding, and strategy. Here are actionable tips to help you excel:

1. Understand the Key Topics First

Focus on the main topics for SS2 second term such as:

• Simple Machines and Levers
• Moments and Equilibrium
• Density and Upthrust
• Newton’s Laws of Motion
• Work, Energy and Power
• Projectile Motion

Do not just read—make sure you understand how each concept works in real life.

2. Master the Formulas

Physics is full of formulas. You must know them and understand how to use them.
Examples:

• F = ma
• Moment = Force × Distance
• Density = Mass / Volume
• Work = Force × Distance
• KE = ½mv²

Do not just memorize—practice applying them to different questions.

3. Practice Calculations Daily

Most students fail physics because of calculation problems. Practice regularly:

• Solve past questions
• Work on numerical problems
• Learn how to convert units correctly

The more you practice, the faster and more accurate you become.

4. Understand Definitions and Laws

Some questions will test your theory. You must be able to:

• Define terms clearly (e.g., force, momentum, energy)
• State laws correctly (e.g., Newton’s laws)
• Explain principles (e.g., Archimedes’ principle)

Write definitions in simple and correct English.

5. Study Diagrams and Applications

Physics involves diagrams and real-life applications:

• Learn how to draw simple diagrams (e.g., levers, forces)
• Understand how machines work in real life
• Relate theory to everyday examples

This will help you answer both objective and theory questions easily.

6. Use Past Questions Wisely

Past questions are your best friend:

• Practice them under exam conditions
• Look for repeated question patterns
• Learn how answers are structured

Many exam questions are similar to past ones.

7. Avoid Common Mistakes

• Forgetting units in calculations
• Using wrong formulas
• Rushing without reading questions properly
• Poor diagram labeling

Always check your work before submitting.

8. Write Neatly and Clearly

Examiners must understand your answer:

• Show your steps in calculations
• Write formulas before substituting values
• Use correct units

Even if your final answer is wrong, you may still get marks for the correct steps.

9. Manage Your Time in the Exam

• Start with questions you understand
• Do not spend too much time on one question
• Leave space and come back if needed

Time management can make a big difference.

10. Believe You Can Do It

Many students fear physics. But the truth is this: once you understand it, it becomes one of the easiest subjects.
Stay consistent, practice daily, and do not give up.

It’s a wrap!

If you need more clarification on SS2 First Term Questions on Physics, you can use the comments box below. We’ll be there to answer you asap. Don’t forget to join our Free Online Tutorial Classes on YouTube. (Subscribe to the Channel)

Best wishes..