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JSS 3 NECO BECE 2026 Questions and Answers Basic Science and Technology

This is for BECE Candidates looking for NECO BECE 2026 Questions and Answers Basic Science and Technology, as they call it But this is Basic Education Certificate Examination by the National Examination Council (NECO) for JSS3 candidates The Basic Science and Technology paper is compulsory for all candidates regardless of their school So, here you will get genuine NECO BECE 2026 Questions and Answers for Basic Science and Technology Your duty now is to read through them as many times as possible and get ready to smash your paper Don’t forget to join our Free Online BECE Tutorials on YouTube (Subscribe to the Channel)

NECO BECE Questions and Answers Basic Science and Technology

What are NECO BECE 2026 Questions and Answers Basic Science and Technology?

NECO BECE 2026 Questions and Answers Basic Science and Technology are the questions you should expect in your Basic Science and Technology paper in 2026 BECE, together with their answers

It is very important that every candidate preparing to sit for in the forthcoming 2026 BECE examinations should catch a glimpse of these questions

In so doing, they will know what to expect in the exam hall Knowing exactly what to expect will boost their confidence and guarantee them a very high score

Note that the Basic Science and Technology Paper comprises of

  1. Basic Science
  2. Physical and Health Education
  3. Basic Technology
  4. Computer studies

NECO BECE 2026 Basic Science and Technology Questions and Answers Revealed!

On this page, we shall reveal NECO BECE 2026 Questions and Answers for all candidates taking the Basic Science and Technology paper

How lucky you are to stumble upon this important page!

The questions are genuine and the answers are accurate, and all are a product of our passion to see you excel in your BECE and proceed to Senior Secondary School

In the following sections, you will read the Basic Science and Technology questions you are to expect in your 2026 NECO BECE exam as well as their answers You can use the comments section if you still need clarification over some of the questions We will give you a more detailed explanation

junior waec candidates in bece hall

PAPER 1: BASIC SCIENCE & PHYSICAL AND HEALTH EDUCATION

BASIC SCIENCE

1. The function of sodium in the body is to
A. aid blood clotting
B. help in the formation of hair
C. maintain osmotic pressure of blood
D. repair cells and tissues
E. strengthen bones and muscles

2. Which of the following is an example of cereal?
A. Beans          B. Plantain
C. Potato         D. Rice
E. Yam

3. Hydrogen sulphide is an air pollutant produced by
A. carbon monoxide
B. decaying organic matter
C. exhaust fume
D. nitrogen oxides
E. volatile organic compounds

4. Which of the following is not a method of controlling soil erosion?
A. Cover cropping
B. Crop rotation
C. Mulching
D. Overgrazing
E. Using sandbag

5. Animal that lives on land and in water is referred to as
A. amphibian       B. arboreal
C. arthropod        D. mammal
E. reptile

6. Part of an animal cell that carries gene is the
A. cell membrane
B. cytoplasm
C. nuclear membrane
D. nucleus
E. vacuole

7. An example of an invertebrate is
A. frog       B. fish
C. snail      D. crocodile
E. toad

8. The lateral line in fish is used for
A. feeding        B. floating
C. irritability     D. locomotion
E. respiration

9. An example of brackish water habitat is
A. lagoon         B. lake
C. pond            D. river
E. stream

10. Which of the following aquatic organisms is found in marine habitat?
A. Snail           B. Spirogyra
C. Tilapia        D. Toad
E. Whale

11. Tin is a metal used in
A. covering iron to prevent rust
B. electric wire production
C. making pole and pillar
D. making switch and car battery
E. the production of roofing sheet

12. A natural source of energy is
A. battery          B. coal
C. kerosene       D. paraffin
E. petrol

13. Which of the following is not a property of matter in its solid state?
A. Fixed shape
B. Fixed volume
C. Flows easily
D. High density
E. Rigid structure

14. Fig 1.1 illustrates _______ force

Fig 1.1

A. electrical         B. frictional
C. magnetic        D. tensional
E. gravitational

15. Penumbra occurs during
A. annular eclipse
B. eclipse of the moon
C. eclipse of the sun
D. partial eclipse
E. total eclipse

16. Glycerin is an example of _______ chemical
A. agro               B. cosmetic
C. industrial        D. nuclear
E. petro

17. Calculate the power expended by a man who applies a force of 10 N on a load through a distance of 4 m in 10 seconds
A. 4 W            B. 10 W
C. 34 W          D. 36 W
E. 40 W

18. What is the kinetic energy of a bike of mass 160 kg moving at a velocity of 4 m/s?
A. 40 J             B. 320 J
C. 640 J           D. 1280 J
E. 2560 J

19. Gold occurs in its ore state as
A. arsenide        B. bauxite
C. calamine        D. haematite
E. siderite

20. The similarity between evaporation and boiling is that both
A. are affected by mass of the liquid exposed
B. cause cooling
C. have molecules escaping into the atmosphere
D. need heat to occur
E. take place at all temperatures

21. The method of heat transfer in the apparatus illustrated in Fig 1.2 is

Fig 1.2

A. condensation      B. conduction
C. convection          D. evaporation
E. radiation

22. A product of crude oil used for welding is
A. diesel
B. kerosene
C. paraffin wax
D. petrol
E. petroleum gas

23. Calculate the current in ampere(s), flowing through a wire which has a resistance of 4 \Omega, connected across a battery of 3 volts
A. 0.75         B. 1.00
C. 1.33         D. 7.00
E. 12.00

24. Human activities that cause desertification include the following except
A. bush burning
B. chemical weathering
C. deforestation
D. overgrazing
E. poor irrigation

25. Which of the following is a non biodegradable material?
A. Cotton         B. Manure
C. Paper           D. Textile
E. Wood

26. Effect of drug abuse on social behaviour of youths is
A. financial gain to the society
B. improved relationships with friends
C. increased violent behaviours
D. positive attitude towards school
E. protected sex

27. Diamond is an allotrope of
A. carbon           B. chlorine
C. hydrogen       D. sodium
E. uranium

28. Fig 1.3 is used to demonstrate the transmission of

Fig 1.3

A. heat         B. light
C. wave        D. sound
E. magnetism

29. When the North pole of a bar magnet is brought closer to the North pole of another bar magnet, they will
A. attract          B. repel
C. resonate       D. rotate
E. vibrate

30. Radioactive dating is used to
A. detect cancer of the bone
B. determine the age of antiquities
C. gauge the thickness of metal foils
D. generate electricity for large cities
E. measure the penetrating ability of radiation

PHYSICAL AND HEALTH EDUCATION

31. The early man took active part in physical activities in order to
A. celebrate       B. exercise
C. relax              D. survive
E. worship

32. The development of physical education began in
A. Britain           B. Egypt
C. Germany       D. Greece
E. Rome

33. Who among the following scholars was regarded as the father of gymnastics in Germany?
A. Adolph Spiess
B. Baron Pierre de Coubertin
C. Friedrich Ludwig Jahn
D. Jahn Basedow
E. Johann Guts Muths

34. Which of the following is a function of protein in the body?
A. Build cells
B. Provide warmth
C. Remove waste
D. Restore energy
E. Tone muscles

35. Excessive body weight due to fat describes
A. kwashiorkor      B. lordosis
C. marasmus         D. obesity
E. scurvy

36. Voluntary participation in sporting activities by individuals at their free time for all round development is
A. excursion        B. leisure
C. recreation       D. relaxation
E. rest

37. Which of the following is an Igbo traditional dance?
A. Atilogwu        B. Eyo
C. Kalangu         D. Sharo
E. Swange

38. Back crawl in swimming is
A. common with learners
B. difficult to learn
C. less energy consuming
D. popular to all swimmers
E. the fastest stroke

39. Which of the following is an end product of protein digestion?
A. Amino acid
B. Fatty acid
C. Fructose
D. Glucose
E. Lactose

40. When a pointed object makes a deep hole in the tissue of a body, the wound is
A. abrasion       B. contusion
C. incision         D. laceration
E. puncture

41. Which of the following is a social value derived from participating in games and sports?
A. Earning more wages
B. Having body flexibility and coordination
C. Having good reaction time
D. Having human relationship
E. Improving physical fitness and skills

42. Consuming glucose during competition
A. eliminates hunger
B. enhances entertainment
C. increases chances of winning
D. nourishes the body
E. restores glycogen in muscles

43. Temporal artery is located on the
A. head       B. leg
C. neck       D. shoulder
E. wrist

44. What is the length of a standard swimming pool?
A. 20 m         B. 30 m
C. 40 m         D. 50 m
E. 60 m

45. When is a “let” called in a game of badminton?
A. During service to the right court
B. If a player is not ready to play
C. If a shuttle cork breaks in flight
D. When a defending player starts the game
E. When serving from the wrong court

46. The physical fitness component required for efficient performance in the game of archery is
A. accuracy        B. agility
C. flexibility        D. power
E. speed

47. Olympics is an international sport competition that takes place every
A. five years
B. four years
C. six years
D. three years
E. two years

48. Basketball is put into play by a
A. centre pass
B. chest pass
C. hook pass
D. jump ball
E. service ball

49. An endomorphic individual can excel in _______ event
A. high jump
B. marathon
C. sprint
D. triple jump
E. weightlifting

50. 800 m and 1500 m are classified under _______ race
A. long distance
B. marathon
C. middle distance
D. relay
E. sprint

51. The series of short kicks made by a player with one or both feet in moving the ball away from an opponent in football is
A. dribbling       B. kicking
C. passing          D. tackling
E. throwing

52. Which of the following is an injury to the bone?
A. Abrasion          B. Cramp
C. Fracture           D. Sprain
E. Strain

53. A standard running track has _______ lanes
A. 4         B. 6
C. 8         D. 10
E. 12

54. A push that lifts a ball slightly off the ground during a pass in a hockey game is
A. drive        B. flick
C. hit            D. pass
E. scoop

55. The ability to move quickly over a given distance within a short period of time is
A. agility        B. balance
C. speed        D. flexibility
E. coordination

56. The path on which an athlete runs in a track is
A. lane
B. line
C. runway
D. scratch line
E. starting line

57. Jumping over a box in a single movement with the hands resting on it defines
A. boxing        B. camping
C. hiking          D. vaulting
E. wrestling

58. Which of the following is a refuse disposal method?
A. Bucket latrine
B. Cesspool system
C. Pit latrine
D. Sanitary landfill
E. Water closet

59. Which of the following tools is used to spread sawdust during a long jump event?
A. Cutlass       B. Hoe
C. Roller          D. Shovel
E. Spade

60. A race is finished by _______ a tape
A. chesting
B. holding
C. running under
D. stopping at
E. touching

PAPER 2: BASIC TECHNOLOGY AND COMPUTER STUDIES

BASIC TECHNOLOGY

1. Which of the following is needed in freehand sketching?
A. Pair of compasses
B. Pair of dividers
C. Pencil
D. Protractor
E. Ruler

2. Fig 2.1 is in _______ projection.

Fig 2.1

A. auxiliary      B. isometric
C. oblique       D. orthographic
E. perspective

3. The shaded part in Fig 2.2 below is

Fig 2.2

A. aerial plan
B. end elevation
C. front elevation
D. left side
E. right side

4. Identify the part labelled O in Fig 2.3.

Fig 2.3

A. Diameter      B. Normal
C. Radius          D. Segment
E. Tangent

5. Fig 2.4 is in _______ projection.

Fig 2.4

A. auxiliary         B. isometric
C. oblique          D. orthographic
E. perspective

6. Angle Q in Fig 2.5 is

Fig 2.5

A. 20°          B. 35°
C. 45°          D. 62
E. 70°

7. The quadrilateral in Fig 2.6 is

Fig 2.6

A. square           B. rectangle
C. rhombus       D. trapezium
E. parallelogram

8. Which of the following is an enlarged scale?
A. 1:10         B. 1:50
C. 1:75         D. 10:10
E. 50:1

9. The type of hammer sketched in Fig 2.7 is

Fig 2.7

A. claw      B. ball peen
C. club       D. cross peen
E. sledge

10. The following are maintenance practices on a refrigerator except
A. checking for cooling
B. correction of leaks
C. dusting of parts
D. oiling of parts
E. topping of refrigerant

11. Latex is a material used for making
A. ceramic       B. metal
C. plastic         D. rubber
E. wooden

12. The joint pattern in Fig 2.8 is prepared using _______ saw.

Fig 2.8

A. bow             B. coping
C. dovetail        D. rip
E. tenon

13. Prolonging the serviceable life of wood is known as
A. painting          B. planning
C. polishing        D. preservation
E. spraying

14. Resin is a product of
A. celotex       B. iron
C. kaolin         D. latex
E. wood

15. What type of glove is used when handling loads with rough surfaces and jagged edges?
A. Fabric             B. Leather
C. Polythene       D. Rubber
E. Surgical

16. Nose bleeding can be stopped by
A. giving cold drinks
B. inserting cotton wool into the nose
C. pinching briefly the nostrils
D. rubbing vaseline on the nose
E. sprinkling water on the victim

17. The following are qualities of a good first aider except
A. emotional control
B. having the knowledge of safety rules
C. inability to take quick decision
D. showing empathy
E. the ability to assess situation before giving first aid

18. The modern technology equipment that is used by military intelligence for spying is
A. drone          B. gun
C. mast            D. rocket
E. warship

19. In building construction, 9″ block is _______ in length
A. 105 mm       B. 120 mm
C. 150 mm       D. 225 mm
E. 245 mm

20. The part labelled B in Fig 2.9 is

Fig 2.9

A. cavity wall
B. earth filling
C. hardcore
D. oversite concrete
E. screed

21. A metal that can break easily is said to be
A. brittle        B. ductile
C. elastic        D. malleable
E. tough

22. Which of the following is true of tin snips? They
A. are used for boring
B. are used to cut pipes
C. can be used to cut hard materials
D. can be used to cut in a straight line
E. have long blades

23. Which of the following is made of copper alloy?
A. Anvil       B. Bolt
C. Cable      D. Cooking pot
E. Table knife

24. Alloy steels are produced in _______ furnace
A. bessemer converter
B. crucible
C. cupola
D. electric arc
E. reverberatory

25. The edges of finished workpieces are strengthened by
A. chiselling      B. curling
C. filing             D. shearing
E. wiring

26. The diagram in Fig 2.10 represents _______ gear.

Fig 2.10

A. bevel
B. helical
C. rack and pinion
D. sun and planet
E. worm and peg

27. An advantage of pneumatic machine is
A. being a close system
B. being cumbersome
C. being free of fire hazard
D. employing pressurized liquid
E. having automatic lubrication system

28. Application of friction in a grinding machine is experienced between the _______ and belt
A. chain         B. gear
C. pulley        D. shaft
E. sprocket

29. The part of a circular saw machine that keeps the kerf open is
A. fence         B. riving knife
C. table          D. saw guard
E. saw blade

30. The filler material for brazing is
A. copper       B. solder
C. spelter        D. tin
E. zinc

COMPUTER STUDIES

31. The files deleted from a computer system are temporarily stored in
A. flash drive      B. folder
C. local disk        D. recycle bin
E. register

32. The pictorial representation of a program on a computer’s desktop is a/an
A. animation       B. file
C. icon                D. menu
E. pointer

33. Which of the following discourages the use of computer for processing information?
A. Automation of processes
B. Ease of access to information
C. High cost of initial investment
D. Speedy processing of data
E. Storage of large amounts of data

34. Which of the following activities requires a word processor?
A. Computer upgrade
B. Formatting of system
C. Installation of peripheral devices
D. Text document modification
E. Updating operating system

35. The unit of computer operations that prints out information is
A. control         B. input
C. memory       D. output
E. processing

36. Microsoft Paint is an example of a _______ package
A. graphic
B. presentation
C. spreadsheet
D. web design
E. word processing

37. The collective name for symbols used in writing programs is
A. alphabet          B. character
C. hieroglyph       D. numeral
E. sign

38. A professional who writes, tests and maintains codes that instructs computers to perform specific tasks is a/an
A. analyst          B. administrator
C. manager       D. operator
E. programmer

39. Which of the following is related to ICT?
A. Forecasting
B. Hawking
C. Hiking
D. Lumbering
E. Stakeboarding

40. What is the equivalent of 3 bytes in bits?
A. 4           B. 8
C. 12         D. 16
E. 24

41. What is the full meaning of RAM?
A. Random Access Memory
B. Random Acute Memo
C. Rapid Access Memory
D. Read Access Memory
E. Read Accurate Memo

42. Which of the following is best produced using Microsoft Excel?
A. Journal       B. Letter
C. Logo           D. Memo
E. Payroll

43. What is the name given to a processed data?
A. Fact         B. Document
C. News       D. Information
E. Program

44. An attempt by someone to obtain confidential information by falsifying his/her identity is
A. browsing      B. phishing
C. spying          D. surfing
E. updating

45. Which of the following is a modern way of transmitting information?
A. Electronic mail
B. Fire lighting
C. Gong beating
D. Hieroglyphy
E. Whistling

46. Which of the following computer languages is solely based on binary code?
A. Assembly
B. High level
C. Hypertext mark-up
D. Low level
E. Machine

47. Which of the following is an advantage of database systems?
A. Complex to undertake
B. Difficulty of integration
C. Enhanced data integrity
D. Maintenance overhead
E. Security risk

48. The computer component that manipulates and transforms data into information is the
A. input system      B. memory
C. motherboard      D. output system
E. processor

49. Which of the following is not a type of operating system?
A. Multi user
B. Network computer
C. Real time
D. Single tasking
E. Single user

50. 10 REM: Program to find the odd number(s) between integers 1 and 7
20 FOR P = 1 to 7 step 2
30 PRINT P
40 STOP
The value(s) of P in the program above is/are
A. 3           B. 1, 3, 5
C. 1, 5       D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
E. 3, 5

51. A computer is said to be versatile because it
A. can attend to several users at a time
B. can be used for many purposes
C. can deal with one data at a time
D. is capable of storing just a type of data.
E. processes data fast

52. Which of the following storage media has the highest capacity?
A. Flash drive
B. Hard disk drive
C. Magnetic tape
D. Punch card
E. Solid state drive

53. The keyboard shortcut “Ctrl + I” in Microsoft Word will _______ selected text
A. bold           B. erase
C. indent        D. italicise
E. underline

54. An aspect of computer science that develops programs to imitate the thinking and reasoning processes of the human brain is
A. artificial intelligence
B. computer simulation
C. data mining
D. networking
E. robotics

55. A set of moral principles that regulate the use of computer is
A. ethics             B. laws
C. protocol         D. rules
E. standard

56. Which of the following is not a component of spreadsheet?
A. Cell         B. Column
C. Form       D. Row
E. Value

57. A software that can be used to create and manipulate images on a computer is _______ package
A. database management system
B. graphics
C. presentation
D. spreadsheet
E. word processing

58. A smartphone is an example of a/an _______ computer
A. analog      B. micro
C. super        D. special purpose
E. third generation

59. An operating system whose usage is based on the use of disk drives is
A. iOS          B. MS DOS
C. OS/2       D. MS Windows
E. Xenix

60. The statement used for inserting comments into a source program in BASIC programming is
A. CLS          B. FOR
C. LET           D. PRINT
E. REM

Answers to JSS 3 NECO BECE 2025 Questions and Answers Basic Science and Technology

Answers to PAPER I

The following table gives the correct answers to the objective questions in Paper I of JSS3 NECO BECE 2025 for Basic Science and Health Education. If you are using a mobile device, hold the table and scroll to the right or left for a complete view. Remember to use the comments section if you need further clarification of any question…

 

Answers to PAPER II

The following table gives the correct answers to the objective questions in Paper II of JSS3 NECO BECE 2025 for Basic Technology and Computer Studies. If you are using a mobile device, hold the table and scroll to the right or left for a complete view. Remember to use the comments section if you need further clarification of any question.

Answers to Basic Technology (1–30)

 

Answers to Computer Studies (31–60)

 

Best wishes…..



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